0% interest

CJakope

I have 0% balance transfer with Barclays which is due to expire end of the year. I have purchases using the card since the transfer which I try and pay off with 30 days. I have noticed that Barclays have been charging me interest which is increasing despite not having any outstanding balance on purchases. When I called Barclays they said it’s their standard practice to automatically allocate payments and clear off balance transfer and then to purchases. Now I’m paying interest on purchases which I thought l had cleared off. Is this right?

MorningcoffeeIV

Payments go to highest interest statemented transactions. If you're not waiting for purchases to statement, your payments will always go to the BT. 

You then have the issue of paying interest if you're not clearing the full balance each month, which you're not.

Don't mix interest bearing payments with on a BT card unless you know what you're doing.

grumbler

MorningcoffeeIV said:

If you're not waiting for purchases to statement, your payments will always go to the purchases. 
... 

Don't mix interest bearing payments with on a BT card unless you know what you're doing.

I think you are mistaken. Purchases must be statemented for payments to go towards them. 

MorningcoffeeIV

grumbler said:

MorningcoffeeIV said:

If you're not waiting for purchases to statement, your payments will always go to the purchases. 
... 

Don't mix interest bearing payments with on a BT card unless you know what you're doing.

I think you are mistaken. Purchases must be statemented for payments to go towards them. 

Not so much mistaken, but guilty of a typo.

Now corrected.

My thanks.