Payslip and tax question

bootman

I have just had my tax code correct to 585T from BR. Started a 2nd part time job.

On 3 payslips I have paid tax at BR, todays arrived with no tax to pay :j But in the bit that says tax paid to date is has a zero, all previous slips have accumilated what I have been paying. Over £200 in total. It also showed my NI paid to date of being about £8 less than I have paid if you add them all up. Also my pay to date was less as well by £136.

Has the payroll lady made an error or is this right?

Thank you

hilary1

Have you had a tax rebate on your wage slip?

clear_blu

After your code does it say M1 or W1.........because the tax man seems to be doing this a lot recently, it effectively means that they ignore underpayments/overpayments before this payslip......??

Mikeyorks

bootman wrote:

Has the payroll lady made an error or is this right?

The 'T' after the code suggests HMRC are still looking at aspects of your allowances - for this job. But the latest payslip does sound a bit odd.

Could only conclude - as post #3 - that there is a Week 1 / Month 1 included with the code? Which would mean your pay / tax is treated on a non-cumulative basis. It's the only thing that makes sense from the payslip detail you have provided.

bootman

No mention of Month or week 1. I guess I will just have to have another word with the lady who does the pay, I was just concerned that when my p60 arrives at the end of the tax year it would not show what I have already paid in tax, as I will have to send a letter anyway asking them to check what I have paid is correct. I have not had any tax rebate on the payslip.

Thank you everyone for your replies

Hoddie_2

If you signed a P46 for your new second job, indicating that it was your main job, HMRC would have transferred your Personal Allowance to your new employment, and code BR would be issued to your original job. Both codes should be on a week one/month one basis to prevent you paying too little tax.