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  • FIRST POST
    • gregc
    • By gregc 7th Oct 17, 12:05 AM
    • 39Posts
    • 5Thanks
    gregc
    2nd employment tax codes / wrong way round?
    • #1
    • 7th Oct 17, 12:05 AM
    2nd employment tax codes / wrong way round? 7th Oct 17 at 12:05 AM
    I have always had a single, salaried 'main income'. My employer has always changed frequently as I move around within the bigger organisation, and generally this goes smoothly with the use of P45s to new employer. I've never had a different situation.

    2 months ago however, I took on a 'secondary employment'. It is basically a zero hours thing with some adhoc work intermittently going on it. Normally this would have been marked on an HMRC starter checklist as 'already having another job' (option C).

    Now at the time I started this, I just happened to be having a 3 month gap in what I term my 'main employment', so this secondary job got marked as being my only job (option B), with my tax code and all prior tax totals for the year going over to these paychecks.

    I am now about to recommence my 'main employment' again with a new employer. I will presumably have to say that I 'already have a job' on the form (option C), as my secondary employment is going to continue alongside. I am imagining the situation that will occur here is that my tax code will stay with my secondary zero hours employer, and I will end up with a BR tax code on my main employment.

    My secondary employment is only likely to be 10-15% of my main employment. My main employment alone will put me into 40% tax bracket. I complete SA Tax returns.

    Do I have the right understanding that one of my jobs will have a normal tax code (with personal allowance), and one will be BR (without allowance)?
    Would it normally be the case that a secondary (smaller) employment would have the BR code? Am I about to end up with it the wrong way around as my secondary job came first? Does it matter?
    - Ideally, I want PAYE tax coming off sensibly, ending up close to being correct at the end of the year, and not leaving me with either a tax bill or needing a refund. To that end, I think it makes sense for the secondary income to be taxed at 40%, and I understand I can change the tax code to D0.

    Basically:
    What will happen as it is? (which will get the allowance tax code)
    What do I want to happen? (which do I want to have allowance tax code)
    If it's different, how do I make it happen? (e.g. swap them over)

    Thanks in advance for advice/insight!
Page 1
    • badmemory
    • By badmemory 7th Oct 17, 6:00 AM
    • 1,062 Posts
    • 1,128 Thanks
    badmemory
    • #2
    • 7th Oct 17, 6:00 AM
    • #2
    • 7th Oct 17, 6:00 AM
    Initially just tick the right box. Then when the notification comes from HMRC check what it says carefully. If it is going to give the outcome you need (payment of all tax required but no more than that) then you need to do absolutely nothing. If it is going to give you an incorrect outcome then a quick call (before 8am tends to be best) can get them to change it to the right way around. It may even be possible to sort it via your personal tax account, but, as this is fairly new, I am reluctant to offer it as a solution.
    • 00ec25
    • By 00ec25 7th Oct 17, 8:37 AM
    • 5,573 Posts
    • 4,974 Thanks
    00ec25
    • #3
    • 7th Oct 17, 8:37 AM
    • #3
    • 7th Oct 17, 8:37 AM
    as Badmemory says, and as you have identified, you want the code on the second job to be D0 given you are already a higher rate taxpayer so "need" the second job to be taxed at 40%, not at basic rate
    • gregc
    • By gregc 7th Oct 17, 10:31 AM
    • 39 Posts
    • 5 Thanks
    gregc
    • #4
    • 7th Oct 17, 10:31 AM
    • #4
    • 7th Oct 17, 10:31 AM
    Thanks for the early replies! I will wait until new employer setup and then speak to HMRC if not right. I will see if I can do anything online as I do it, and post back with results.

    1) Just as a point of wonder (I have no intention)... Do people ever deliberately try to end up with a situation where they're underpaying tax until self-assessment time on the basis of investing it for the interest? Is it allowed or do they prevent this somehow? I guess I would end up there if I don't swap tax codes around and don't change to D0.

    2) And just another Q to complete my understanding! If you have 2 jobs (one on personal allowance tax code / one on BR), and you quite the first job (so you're left with the BR) - would your tax code automatically move over, would you give a P45 to your new employer, or would you speak to HMRC?
    Last edited by gregc; 07-10-2017 at 11:12 AM. Reason: Added 2nd Q
    • chrisbur
    • By chrisbur 7th Oct 17, 12:21 PM
    • 2,799 Posts
    • 1,514 Thanks
    chrisbur
    • #5
    • 7th Oct 17, 12:21 PM
    • #5
    • 7th Oct 17, 12:21 PM
    Thanks for the early replies!

    2) And just another Q to complete my understanding! If you have 2 jobs (one on personal allowance tax code / one on BR), and you quite the first job (so you're left with the BR) - would your tax code automatically move over, would you give a P45 to your new employer, or would you speak to HMRC?
    Originally posted by gregc
    The following is HMRC advice to employers if this happens....

    "Existing employee gives you a form P45
    If an existing employee gives you a form P45 from a second job they have
    just left you should tell them to send the P45 Part 3 to:
    HM Revenue & Customs
    Regional Post Room
    St Mungo’s Rd
    CUMBERNAULD
    G67 1YZ
    We will review the tax code and issue an amended one if appropriate"
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