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    • ladymarmalade222
    • By ladymarmalade222 12th Oct 16, 2:30 PM
    • 546Posts
    • 495Thanks
    • #1
    • 12th Oct 16, 2:30 PM
    Freehold 12th Oct 16 at 2:30 PM
    I am selling my house at the moment. There used to be a ground rent of 2 per year but around 12 years ago I paid 50 to buy the freehold.

    I have had a solicitors letter today saying it states in the deeds about the peppercorn rent and if I cannot find the receipt to say I paid the 50 12 years ago I will have to pay again.

    Is it not registered anywhere to say I bought it years ago? I'm sure when I have checked my property details online it states freehold.

    Many thanks

Page 2
    • EssexHebridean
    • By EssexHebridean 13th Oct 16, 2:52 PM
    • 5,878 Posts
    • 33,511 Thanks
    I would suggest you need to get this sorted out. Surely a freehold property is worth more than a leasehold one? Plus, if you paid 50 for something, anything, you should darned well get it, I should think.

    Perhaps it is not worth the hassle to you but, were I your buyer and under the impression I was buying a freehold property, I might just walk away on discovering I was not.
    Originally posted by Smodlet
    This isn't as relevant as you may think. The buyer will as default be buying a leasehold title in any event - the OP is under no obligation to sell the freehold title (assuming they do own it) and on a long (999) year lease - which I would imagine hers is, it'll make precious little difference to the price.

    On that note though, my guess is that the solicitor would by now have flagged up to her that she was also a part owner of the freehold, if this were the case.

    OP - the Leasehold Title would continue to mention the rent (Which you say is 2 per annum, not a peppercorn) as the Leasehold Title will remain active. If it transpires that you DO own the freehold, then congratulations, you owe yourself back-rent...don't spend it all at once!)
    MORTGAGE FREE 30/09/2016
    • G_M
    • By G_M 13th Oct 16, 8:47 PM
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    Assuming there is a leasehold Title. There may not be - that is one option; OP may have owned a lease subject annual payment to the freehlold (which he thought he had bought for 50).

    Or OP may have owned the freehold which was subject to an annual rent charge as Richard suggested, with no lease involved.

    However we are all speculating, and as OP is unclear, there's little more that can be usefully added.
    • Smodlet
    • By Smodlet 14th Oct 16, 1:57 PM
    • 1,532 Posts
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    All this only confirms what I have always thought: Leasehold is a load of !!!!!!!! and freehold is the only way to live.

    None of which is of the slightest use to ladymarmalade, before you tell me so, G_M.
    What is this life, if, sweet wordsmith, we have no time to take the pith?

    Every stew starts with the first onion.

    I took it upon myself to investigate a trifle; it had custard, jelly, soggy sponge things...
    • G_M
    • By G_M 14th Oct 16, 2:34 PM
    • 36,481 Posts
    • 40,066 Thanks
    All this only confirms what I have always thought: Leasehold is a load of !!!!!!!! and freehold is the only way to live.
    Originally posted by Smodlet
    None of this is of the slightest use to ladymarmalad, Smodlet.
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