DLA and mortgage interest - housing benefits

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  • FBaby
    FBaby Posts: 18,367
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    She might need to evidence why she decided to move when she had a good place to stay in whilst being put of for sale.
  • FBaby wrote: »
    She might need to evidence why she decided to move when she had a good place to stay in whilst being put of for sale.

    She just wanted to move into a new place.
    Would she not get any housing benefits backdated for the 6 months rent she has paid upfront? Would benefits continue to pay the interest on the mortgage instead?
    She used the overdraft of her and her husband's joint bank account to pay for the 6 months rent.
  • NeilCr
    NeilCr Posts: 4,430
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  • FBaby
    FBaby Posts: 18,367
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    She just wanted to move into a new place.
    And she thinks that should be enough of a basis to get tax payers to pay both towards her mortgage and her new accommodation?
  • teddysmum
    teddysmum Posts: 9,471
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    I don't think any incapacity comes into this, as the move isn't for health reasons; just choice.
  • Caz3121
    Caz3121 Posts: 15,534
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    She needs to get the mortgaged property on the market pronto. They will no longer pay the interest on the mortgage as she is no longer living there, needs to check the council tax situation for empty properties...it may be 100% but varies by council
    She will need to declare the property ownership when she submits claim for housing benefit..they will assess the capital value and this may impact any housing benefit due unless she can show it up for sale or evidence there is no capital value/equity
  • TELLIT01
    TELLIT01 Posts: 16,374
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    From my reading of the OP, they are already questioning whether that would be 2 payments for the same thing. I'm not getting any sense of entitlement there.
    Just in case my interpretation is wrong, the simple answer is that they won't pay contributions to mortgage costs and housing costs at the same time. There may be rare instances where that isn't true, but the chances are slim to none.
    Capital in the former family home can be disregarded for a period if the property has actually been put up for sale at market price. There may well also be an expectation that the asking price will be reduced quite quickly if there are no offers made on it.
  • teddysmum
    teddysmum Posts: 9,471
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    TELLIT01 wrote: »
    From my reading of the OP, they are already questioning whether that would be 2 payments for the same thing. I'm not getting any sense of entitlement there.
    Just in case my interpretation is wrong, the simple answer is that they won't pay contributions to mortgage costs and housing costs at the same time. There may be rare instances where that isn't true, but the chances are slim to none.
    Capital in the former family home can be disregarded for a period if the property has actually been put up for sale at market price. There may well also be an expectation that the asking price will be reduced quite quickly if there are no offers made on it.



    The OP isn't the person hoping for a double payment. They are questioning what someone else expects.
  • My friend has done this and it is clear she has not done her homework. She's done some bad things that I'm having a hard job being her friend right now.
    I think somewhere done the line she's going to be hit hard financially. She spending the overdraft of the joint bank account right now. I worry about the children.
  • Would they not be better off by moving back to the property (while keeping it on the market ) that has the mortgage as the partner has moved out and give notice on the property As they would not get there money back on her 6 month advance payment.
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